Changing doctors on Texas medicaid

For the love of GOD please use spell check. It's that button in the upper right hand corner that says ABC.

Have I mentioned that you're a liar?

You still haven't answered my question. How did Constantine use the Westcott-Hort Greek NT?

Why are you avoiding my questions?

Ok there are two different manuscripts there the Wescott and Horst wich was used by Constaintine

thats where we get the NIV the Asv and others the Catolic Bible etc

then We have the TExcus Recptus Manuscript which the 1611 King James comes from
this si a bible that Teaches salvation by works and it is verbally ispired By God wiothout error
and it is the only englisg Bible that is verbally inspired by GOd  that is what I belive

but of course you have got to be saved by the blood of Jesus to belive that

Im  fanatic for Jesus I belive in going into the hiways and byways to tell people how they can know for sure when they die they will go to heaven I led 3 people to christ today

Praise the Lord

Oh dear, such woeful ignorance. Let's start with the one KJV translation error that is fresh in my memory.

1 Timothy 2:12 KJV: "For I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over a man...."

From the textus receptus: 2:12 γυναικι δε διδασκειν ουκ επιτρεπω ουδε αυθεντειν ανδρος.....

Oh, wait. You don't read Greek, do you? So you have no idea what that says. Allow me to transliterate: Gunaiki de didaskein ouk epitrepo' oude authentein andros.

I wrote a long post about this the other day, so I'm not going to bother to repeat the whole thing, except for this: That Greek word "authentein," translated in the KJV as "to usurp authority over," is such a RARE word in Greek that it's used ONCE in the whole Bible, and scarcely to be found anywhere in extant classical Greek literature.

There are a very few uses of versions of the word (see, in Greek the endings of words change depending on the gender of the noun, the verb tense and various other things, so you have to look for the root of the word in question) in obscure mentions of a certain kind of heathen worship, in the Diana cult. Timothy lived in Ephesus, where the Diana cult was very strong. The Diana temples, like many heathen temples in the Greek world, made free use of sex. We call it temple prostitution today, although that's not really necessarily a good way to describe what they were doing.

Be that as it may, the only other uses of the word "authentein" scholars have found are in the context of that kind of activity: Having sex in the heathen temple as a form of worship.

Notice: IT HAS NOTHING WHATSOEVER TO DO WITH ANY KIND OF "AUTHORITY."

The ONLY relationship between "authentein" and "to usurp authority over" are the letters "auth."

Gee, based on that kind of scholarship, they could just as well have translated it, "I suffer not a woman to teach nor to author texts about a man."

The scholars GUESSED at the meaning, and they got it WRONG.

If God were dictating to them when they wrote the KJV, would God have dictated such an error?

Of course not. The KJV is a TRANSLATION of compiliations of pieces of much older texts. NOBODY has any ORIGINAL COPIES of what the Biblical writers wrote. It is, for the Christian, all the more miraculous, then, that what has reached us today, in so many different languages, is as consistent as it is. We need to study they whole Bible, in context, with careful attention to the ways of the times when the various parts were written, and consider thoughtfully what messages we can take from it for us here, today.

Here's a pretty decent-looking article about where the Textus Receptus came from. Erasmus, its compiler, was, by the way, CATHOLIC. Oh horrors. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Textus_Receptus

A couple of pertinent citations from that article:

"Textus Receptus (Latin: "received text") is the name subsequently given to the succession of printed Greek texts of the New Testament which constituted the translation base for the original German Luther Bible, for the translation of the New Testament into English by William Tyndale, the King James Version, and for most other Reformation-era New Testament translations throughout Western and Central Europe. The series originated with the first printed Greek New Testament to be published; a work undertaken in Basel by the Dutch Catholic scholar and humanist Desiderius Erasmus in 1516, on the basis of some six manuscripts, containing between them not quite the whole of the New Testament. The lacking text was translated from Vulgate. Although based mainly on late manuscripts of the Byzantine text-type, Erasmus's edition differed markedly from the classic form of that text."

You do know, my unlearned Baptist friend, don't you, that the Vulgate is in LATIN and comes from the *gasp* Catholic Church?

Why did Erasmus undertake this venture? "Rather his motivations seems to be simpler: he included the Greek text to prove the superiority of his Latin version. "

About that dictated by God thing? "

Typographical errors (attributed to the rush to complete the work) abounded in the published text. Erasmus also lacked a complete copy of the book of Revelation and was forced to translate the last six verses back into Greek from the Latin Vulgate in order to finish his edition. Erasmus adjusted the text in many places to correspond with readings found in the Vulgate, or as quoted in the Church Fathers; consequently, although the Textus Receptus is classified by scholars as a late Byzantine text, it differs in nearly two thousand readings from standard form of that text-type, as represented by the "Majority Text" of Hodges and Farstad (Wallace 1989). The edition was a sell-out commercial success and was reprinted in 1519, with most—though not all—the typographical errors corrected.<sup>"

Now, is my goal here to discredit the Bible? Not at all. It's to attempt to educate you a little bit about where the Bible you think is "dictated by God" really came from.

You would be a far more effective "soul winner" if you would undertake to learn some real facts about the Bible you love. There's a lot more to winning souls than getting somebody to repeat the sinner's prayer after presenting them with the four spiritual laws. Come on, you're an adult. You have the capacity to learn and grow. You have a mind. USE IT. God made it to be USED.</sup>

You're my hero, EN. Now, instead of finding my own words to explain this issue (a friend and are were having this particular argument about this text this weekend) I can just shove your post in front of their nose. I heart you, dearie!

Be sure to look up a little bit about the other two Greek texts I mentioned below. The KJV-only arguers like to claim the Textus Receptus is the oldest and only "complete" Greek text. Thing is, Textus Receptus is a partial translation from the evil awful CATHOLIC Latin. Uh oh. Since in the minds of your type KJV-only type, the Catholic church is the great ***** of Babylon mentioned in the book of Revelation, one wonders how they can blithely insist that their KJV is dictated by God when it came from 100% CATHOLIC sources.

Oh, and get this! I check my concordant Greek text, and AUTHENTEIN is translated as "to-be-domineering." Somehow, I think that a cult of Diana would have the women "domineering" the men in their sex acts. THAT is where the distaste for women "being over men" comes from. They just didn't like us being on top!

There ya go. It would be just about as reasonable to say that Paul was dictating that the missionary position was the only correct way for Christians to have sex, as it is to say that he was dictating some kind of divinely-mandated gender submission thing.

Actually, I think some more likely reasons for his instructions about these behaviors had to do with his Jewish background and beliefs....Not necessarily so much to get the new Gentile Christians to act "Jewish," but rather more about the concept of distinguishing themselves as "chosen" and "separate" from the rest of the world.

Okay smart guy. Explain to me WHY the textus receptus is superior to, say, the Editio Regia or the Stephanus NT ?

As for complaining about a certain version being used by "Constantinople," explain to me then why the textus receptus is considered a Byzantine text? (Hint: Byzantine and Constantinople are related.)